Pharmacology Paper-1 (Supplementary), 2021 MBBS Batch ABVMU Lucknow

MBBS DEGREE - IInd PROFESSIONAL - SUPPLEMENTARY EXAMINATION - JUNE 2024

PHARMACOLOGY - PAPER - 1

SECTION A - Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs)

PAPER CODE: 2421130005

SET: C

Note: Choose one correct answer in the OMR sheet provided. No overwriting should be done.

(20 x 1 = 20 MARKS) Time: 20 Minutes

• 1. Which one of the following compounds is microsomal enzyme inhibitor?

• a) Phenobarbitone

• b) Rifampicin

• c) Erythromycin

• d) Glucocorticoids

• 2. Which one of the following compounds is used as dissociative anaesthesia?

• a) Morphine

• b) Fentanyl

• c) Ether

• d) Ketamine

• 3. Which one of the following compounds is used as tocolytic agent?

• a) Phenylephrine

• b) Isoxsuprine

• c) Amphetamine

• d) Ephedrine

• 4. Name of category of drugs which are used for the treatment of very rare diseases.

• a) Orphan drugs

• b) Non-essential drug

• c) Not approved drugs

• d) Costly drugs

• 5. Adrenaline injected with a local anaesthetic:

• a) Reduces systemic toxicity of the local anaesthetic

• b) Reduces local toxicity of the local anaesthetic

• c) Makes the injection less painful

• d) Shortens duration of local anaesthesia

• 6. Which of the following is an adverse effect of β2 agonists?

• a) Hypomagnesemia

• b) Hypoglycemia

• c) Hypokalemia

• d) Hypophosphatemia

• 7. Apparent volume of distribution (Vd) of a drug exceeds total body fluid volume, if a drug is:

• a) Slowly eliminated from body

• b) Sequestrated in body tissues

• c) Highly bound to plasma proteins

• d) Poorly soluble in plasma

• 8. Eutectic lignoçaine-prilocaine has the following unique property:

• a) By surface application, it can anaesthetise unbroken skin

• b) It causes motor blockade without sensory block

• c) It has strong vasoconstrictor action

• d) It is not absorbed after surface application

• 9. Which one of the following compounds is uricosuric and used in management of chronic gout?

• a) Probenecid

• b) Colchicine

• c) Febuxostat

• d) Allopurinol

• 10. Which one of the following is most rapid acting route of drug administration?

• a) Sublingual

• b) Oral

• c) Intravenous

• d) Intramuscular

• 11. Which of the following statement is true about first order kinetics:

• a) Constant concentration of drug eliminated in unit time

• b) Alcohol is eliminated from body by 1st order kinetic at any plasma concentration

• c) Half-life is dependent on plasma concentration

• d) Constant fraction of drug eliminated in unit time

• 12. A partial agonist can antagonise the effects of a full agonist because it has:

• a) Low affinity but high intrinsic activity

• b) High affinity but low intrinsic activity

• c) High affinity but no intrinsic activity

• d) No affinity and low intrinsic activity

• 13. Which one of the following agents enhances the bioavailability of levodopa in patients with Parkinson's disease:

• a) Ropinirole

• b) Amantadine

• c) Selegiline

• d) Entacapone

• 14. Which one of the following drugs does not induce mydriasis:

• a) Ephedrine

• b) Phentolamine

• c) Cocaine

• d) Phenylephrine

• 15. Which one of the following H1 antihistaminics is not preferred when the patient has to perform the fine machinery task or driving?

• a) Azelastine

• b) Fexophenadine

• c) Promethazine

• d) Ebastine

• 16. Which one of the following drugs can cause haemolysis in patients with G6PD deficiency state?

• a) Paracetamol

• b) Ampicillin

• c) Primaquine

• d) Dopamine

• 17. Antiepileptic drug used for prophylaxis of migraine is:

• a) Sumatriptan

• b) Propranolol

• c) Flunarizine

• d) Topiramate

• 18. Atropine is contraindicated in:

• a) Myasthenia gravis

• b) Early mushroom poisoning

• c) Glaucoma

• d) Organophosphate poisoning

• 19. Which of the following is a prodrug?

• a) Captopril

• b) Ampicillin

• c) Levodopa

• d) Phenytoin

• 20. Microsomal enzyme induction can be a cause of:

• a) Physical dependence

• b) Idiosyncrasy

• c) Tolerance

• d) Psychological dependence

ATAL BIHARI VAJPAYEE MEDICAL UNIVERSITY, LUCKNOW

MBBS DEGREE - IInd PROFESSIONAL - SUPPLEMENTARY EXAMINATION - JUNE 2024

PHARMACOLOGY - PAPER - I

TIME: 3 Hrs Max. Marks: 100 Marks (80 Theory + 20MCQs)

NOTE:

• Attempt all questions.

• This question paper consists of two sections: Section A- Multiple Choice Questions and Section B

• Both the section has different paper code. Write correct paper code on respective sheet

• Write correct MCQ paper set on OMR sheet

• Answer MCQs on the provided OMR sheet and theory questions on the provided answer book

SECTION B THEORY QUESTIONS

PAPER CODE: 2421230005

Q.1 Long Answer Question. ( 15 MARKS )

• Define adverse drug reaction (1 marks)

• Explain different types of adverse drug reactions with brief (8 marks)

• Describe teratogenicity in detail (6 marks)

Q.2 Clinical Case Scenario based Structured Question (15 MARKS)

The parents of a 7-year-old male child complain that sometimes suddenly the child stops all sorts of activities, keeps staring to some object and fails to respond to the commands. Clinical examination and history suggests that she is suffering from absence seizures (petit mal epilepsy).

• Classify the drugs used for epilepsy based on their mechanism of action. 5 mark

• Which drug you will choose for therapy for given condition? Why? 5 mark

• What are the specific adverse effects of drug of choice in question? 3 mark

• Mention non-antiepileptic uses of drug of choice in question? 2 mark

Q.3 Short Note Question (Approx 500 Words) 5 X 6 = 30 MARKS

• L-dopa

• Plasma protein binding

• Methanol poisoning

• Pharmacotherapy of status asthmaticus

• Principles of clinical ethics and their application to clinical practice

Q.4 Short Answer Questions (Within 100 Words) 5 X 4 = 20 MARKS

• Why NSAIDs should be used with caution in patients with renal impairment?

• Write non-cardiac uses of propranolol.

• Omeprazole should be given in empty stomach preferably during morning hours

• Drug therapy for open angle glaucoma

• Therapeutic uses of adrenaline

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