Pathology Paper-2 (Main), 2022 MBBS Batch ABVMU Lucknow

My post content

ATAL BIHARI VAJPAYEE MEDICAL UNIVERSITY, LUCKNOW

MBBS DEGREE IIInd PROFESSIONAL - REGULAR EXAMINATION - DEC 2024

PATHOLOGY - PAPER - II

SECTION A - Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs)

PAPER CODE: 2412130004

SET: B

Note: Choose one correct answer in the OMR sheet provided. No overwriting should be done.

(20 x 1 = 20 MARKS)

Time: 20 Minutes

1. Loss of foot processes in the glomerulus is a characteristic feature of:

a) Chronic glomerulonephritis b) Diabetic nephropathy c) Acute glomerulonephritis d) Minimal change disease

2. The gold standard for diagnosing coronary artery disease (CAD) is:

a) Electrocardiogram (ECG) b) Cardiac MRI c) Stress test d) Coronary angiography

3. Asteroid bodies are characteristically found in which of the following lung diseases?

a) Asbestosis b) Tuberculosis c) Silicosis d) Sarcoidosis

4. Which type of gastric polyp has the highest malignant potential?

a) Adenomatous polyp b) Inflammatory polyp c) Fundic gland polyp d) Hyperplastic polyp

5. Alpha feto protein raised in which condition:

a) Yolk sac tumor b) Mucinous cystadeno carcinoma c) Brenner tumor d) Malignant hypertension

6. Libman-Sacks endocarditis is most commonly associated with:

a) Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) b) Aortic stenosis c) Infective endocarditis d) Rheumatic fever

7. A tumor marker often elevated in ovarian cancer is:

a) CEA b) PSA c) CA 125 d) AFP

8. The most common type of kidney stone is:

a) Uric acid b) Cystine c) Calcium oxalate d) Struvite

9. Molluscum contagiosum is caused by:

a) A fungus b) A parasite c) A virus d) A bacterium

10. Lesion of thyroid with autoimmune etiology is:

a) Riedel's thyroiditis b) DeQuervain's thyroiditis c) Hashimoto's thyroiditis d) Grave's thyroiditis

11. A 25-year-old female presents with fever, joint pain, and a new heart murmur. Blood cultures are positive for Streptococcus viridans. This patient has which condition:

a) Infective endocarditis b) Myocarditis c) Acute rheumatic fever d) Pericarditis

12. A characteristic histopathological feature of retinoblastoma is:

a) Homer-Wright rosettes b) Reed-Sternberg cells c) Flexner-Wintersteiner rosettes d) Psammoma bodies

13. The common gene mutation associated with hereditary hemochromatosis is:

a) CFTR gene b) TP53 gene c) HFE gene d) BRCA1 gene

14. Which of the following is the most common cause of nephrotic syndrome in children?

a) Membranous nephropathy b) IgA nephropathy c) Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis (FSGS) d) Minimal change disease (MCD)

15. Nonalcoholic fatty liver disease (NAFLD) is primarily associated with:

a) Viral hepatitis b) Metabolic syndrome c) Excessive alcohol consumption d) Autoimmune liver disease

16. A 30-year-old female presents with dyspnea, Raynaud phenomenon, and pulmonary hypertension. ANA is positive. The diagnosis is:

a) Systemic sclerosis b) Systemic lupus erythematosus c) Rheumatoid arthritis d) Mixed connective tissue disease

17. A 35-year-old woman presents with chronic diarrhea and malabsorption. Duodenal biopsy shows villous atrophy and crypt hyperplasia. Anti-tissue transglutaminase antibodies are positive. The most likely diagnosis is:

a) Crohn's disease b) Whipple's disease c) Celiac disease d) Tropical sprue

18. A 60-year-old male presents with abdominal distension and jaundice. Ascitic fluid analysis shows a serum-ascitic albumin gradient (SAAG) > 1.1 g/dL. The probable cause is:

a) Cirrhosis b) Malignancy c) Peritoneal tuberculosis d) Pancreatic ascites

19. The most common primary malignant brain tumor in adults is:

a) Meningioma b) Oligodendroglioma c) Glioblastoma multiforme d) Astrocytoma

20. Elevated p ANCA with eosinophillia is seen in:

a) Microscopic polyangiitis b) Wegener's granulomatosis c) Churg Strauss vasculitis d) Polyarteritis nodosa

MBBS DEGREE - IInd PROFESSIONAL - REGULAR EXAMINATION - DEC 2024 ATAL BIHARI VAJPAYEE MEDICAL UNIVERSITY, LUCKNOW

PATHOLOGY - PAPER - II

TIME: 3 Hrs Max. Marks: 100 Marks (80 Theory + 20MCQs)

NOTE:

• Attempt all questions.

• This question paper consists of two sections: Section A- Multiple Choice Questions and Section B- Theory Questions.

• Both the section has different paper code. Write correct paper code on respective sheet

• Write correct MCQ paper set on OMR sheet

• Answer MCQs on the provided OMR sheet and theory questions on the provided answer booklet.

SECTION B - THEORY QUESTIONS

PAPER CODE: 2412230004

Q.1 Long Answer Question. ( 15 MARKS )

Classify glomerulonephritis. Describe pathogenesis and morphological findings in a case of diabetic nephropathy.

Q.2 Clinical Case Scenario based Structured Question (15 MARKS)

A 50 year old male presents with cough, dyspnoea, and intermittent haemoptysis for two months along with loss of weight and appetite. He is a chronic smoker for the past 3 decades. 1 CT chest revealed mass lesion in the right lobe of lung.

i) What is your probable diagnosis? 2 marks

ii) Discuss in detail the classification 3 marks

iii) Morphological features 5 marks

iv) Paraneoplastic syndromes associated with it. 5 marks

Q.3 Short Note Question (Approx 500 Words) 5 X 6 = 30 MARKS

i) Define inflammatory bowel disease (IBD)? Types of this and describe difference between them.

ii) Basal cell carcinoma.

iii) Define rheumatic heart disease. Mention revised Jones criteria.

iv) Differentiate between chronic bronchitis and emphysema.

v) CSF analysis in different types of meningitis.

Q.4 Short Answer Questions (Within 100 Words) 5 X 4 = 20 MARKS

i) Cushing syndrome.

ii) Dermoid cyst of ovary.

iii) Primary biliary cirrhosis.

iv) Etiopathogenesis of carcinoma colon.

v) Basal Cell Carcinoma

VitalText Publication - All Rights Reserved