Pathology Paper-1 (Main), 2021 MBBS Batch ABVMU Lucknow

ATAL BIHARI VAJPAYEE MEDICAL UNIVERSITY, LUCKNOW

MBBS DEGREE - IInd PROFESSIONAL - REGULAR EXAMINATION - MARCH 2024

PATHOLOGY - PAPER - I

SECTION A - Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs)

PAPER CODE: 2411130004

SET: B

Note: Choose one correct answer in the OMR sheet provided. No overwriting should be done.

Time: 20 Minutes (20 x 1 = 20 MARKS)

• 1. A tumour is called clonal, when the acquired genetic damage is in

• a) Multiple precursor cells

• b) Stem cells

• c) Single precursor cell

• d) Heterogeneous cells

• 2. Which variant of Hodgkin's lymphoma has best prognosis?

• a) Lymphocyte depleted

• b) Mixed cellularity

• c) Lymphocyte predominant

• d) Nodular sclerosis

• 3. Chronic granulomatous inflammation is seen in

• a) Typhoid

• b) Sarcoidosis

• c) Diphtheria

• d) Pneumonia

• 4. In Marfan syndrome the defect is in

• a) Fibrillin II

• b) Collagen alpha II

• c) Fibrillin I

• d) Collagen alpha III

• 5. Effector white blood cells of the innate immune system are

• a) Neutrophils

• b) Lymphocytes

• c) Dendritic cells

• d) NK cells

• 6. The combination of HLA alleles in each individual is called

• a) Haplotype

• b) Diplotype

• c) Prototype

• d) Tetratype

• 7. Hyperacute graft rejection is an example of this type of hypersensitivity reaction

• a) Type II

• b) Type III

• c) Type I

• d) Type IV

• 8. Red cell distribution width is used for estimation of

• a) Anisocytosis

• b) Chromasia

• c) Poikilocytosis

• d) Hemolysis

• 9. Which of these diseases listed is a X-Linked disorder

• a) Cystic fibrosis

• b) Haemophilia A

• c) Polycystic kidney disease

• d) Neurofibromatosis

• 10. Sickle cell trait protects against

• a) Malaria

• b) Filariasis

• c) Leishmaniasis

• d) None of the above

• 11. Tay Sachs disease caused by inability to metabolise

• a) Gangliosides

• b) Sphingolipids

• c) Glycolipids

• d) Lipoproteins

• 12. HIV replication results in

• a) Increased count of CD4+ T cells

• b) Decreased count of CD8+ T cells

• c) Decreased count of CD4+ T cells

• d) Increased count of CD8+ T cells

• 13. The major fibril protein associated with hemodialysis associated amyloidosis is

• a) AL

• b) Aβ2m

• c) AA

• d) ATTR

• 14. White infarcts occur in

• a) Oesophagus

• b) Small intestine

• c) Kidney

• d) Lung

• 15. Mutation in β globin gene is seen in

• a) Polycythemia

• b) Sickle cell anemia

• c) Thalassemia

• d) Hereditary Spherocytosis

• 16. EBV is associated with

• a) Esophageal carcinoma

• b) Hepatocellular carcinoma

• c) Nasopharyngeal carcinoma

• d) Colon carcinoma

• 17. Smith antigen (Sm) is associated with

• a) Rheumatoid arthritis

• b) Systemic sclerosis

• c) Sjogren syndrome

• d) Systemic lupus erythematosus

• 18. All of the following are tumor suppressor genes except

• a) BRCA1

• b) RB

• c) p53

• d) BCL2

• 19. Trisomy 13 is defined as

• a) Klinefelter syndrome

• b) Cri du chat syndrome

• c) Edward syndrome

• d) Patau syndrome

• 20. Touton giant cells are seen in

• a) Leprosy

• b) Syphilis

• c) Sarcoidosis

• d) Xanthogranuloma

ATAL BIHARI VAJPAYEE MEDICAL UNIVERSITY, LUCKNOW

MBBS DEGREE - IInd PROFESSIONAL - REGULAR EXAMINATION - MARCH 2024

PATHOLOGY - PAPER - I

TIME: 3 Hrs. Max. Marks: 100 Marks (80 Theory + 20 MCQs)

NOTE:

• Attempt all questions.

• This question paper consists of two sections: Section A- Multiple Choice Questions and Section B- Theory Questions.

• Both the section has different paper code. Write correct paper code on respective sheet.

• Write correct MCQ paper set on OMR sheet.

• Answer MCQs on the provided OMR sheet and theory questions on the provided answer booklet.

SECTION B - THEORY QUESTIONS

PAPER CODE: 2411230004

Q.1 Long Answer Question. ( 15 MARKS )

Define and classify Anemia. Discuss peripheral smear and bone marrow findings of Iron deficiency anemia.

Q.2 Clinical Case Scenario based Structured Question 15 MARKS

A 23 years old female presents in OPD with progressive weakness, arthralgia and butterfly rash on face around nose for evaluation of her disease.

i) What is probable diagnosis? 2 marks

ii) Describe pathophysiology of the disease. 5 marks

iii) Discuss relevant laboratory investigations to confirm the diagnosis. 5 marks

iv) What are complications of this disease? 3 marks

Q.3 Short Note Question (Approx 500 Words) 5 X 6 = 30 MARKS

i) Distinction between Benign and Malignant neoplasms

ii) Amyloidosis

iii) Chemical mediators of Acute Inflammation

iv) Pathogenesis of AIDS

v) Genetic counseling

Q.4 Short Answer Questions (Within 100 Words) 5 X 4 = 20 MARKS

i) Pathological calcification

ii) Von Willebrand disease

iii) Nuclear changes in Necrosis

iv) Reed Sternberg cell

v) Wound healing by primary intention

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