Microbiology Paper-2 (Main), 2021 MBBS Batch ABVMU Lucknow

TAL BIHARI VAJPAYEE MEDICAL UNIVERSITY, LUCKNOW
MBBS DEGREE – IInd PROFESSIONAL – REGULAR EXAMINATION – MARCH 2024
MICROBIOLOGY – PAPER-II
SECTION A – Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) SET: D

Note: Choose one correct answer in the OMR sheet provided. No overwriting should be done.

Time: 20 Minutes (20 × 1 = 20 MARKS)

1. Which of the following bacteria can cause swimming pool granuloma?
   a) M. fortuitum
   b) M. ulcerans
   c) M. avium
   d) M. marinum

2. Which of the following produces typical fried egg appearance colonies on solid media?
   a) Mycoplasma hominis
   b) Moraxella catarrhalis
   c) Bacteroides
   d) Mycobacterium tuberculosis

3. Which of the following bacteria protect adult vagina from infections?
   a) Veillonella
   b) Peptococcus
   c) Bacteroides
   d) Lactobacilli

4. Which of the following STIs produces painful genital ulcers and painful lymph nodes?
   a) Herpes
   b) Chancroid
   c) Donovanosis
   d) Syphilis

5. All of the following diseases are transmitted by droplet particles except
   a) Haemophilus influenzae
   b) Coronavirus
   c) Chlamydia trachomatis
   d) Mycoplasma pneumoniae

6. Which of the following viruses contain RNA as the nucleic acid?
   a) Adenovirus
   b) Hepatitis B virus
   c) Herpes virus
   d) Rhinovirus

7. Which of the following viruses is likely to cause infection through skin abrasions?
   a) Rhinovirus
   b) Papillomavirus
   c) Rotavirus
   d) Adenovirus

8. Next to Hib, which strains are the most common group of H. influenzae encountered clinically?
   a) Serotype C strains
   b) Serotype D strains
   c) Nontypeable strain
   d) Serotype A strains

9. The filarial worm that can be seen in the conjunctiva is:
   a) Loa loa
   b) Wuchereria bancrofti
   c) Onchocerca volvulus
   d) Mansonella perstans

10. Characteristic malignant pustule is a feature of infection by:
    a) Carcinoma
    b) Anthrax
    c) Diphtheria
    d) Rubella

11. Weil-Felix reaction is a serological test based on which of the following antigens?
    a) Superantigen
    b) Sheep brain
    c) T-cell dependent antigen
    d) Heterophile

12. Pathogenic fungus that produces spindle-shaped macroconidia is:
    a) Epidermophyton spp.
    b) Microsporum spp.
    c) Trichophyton spp.
    d) Penicillium spp.

13. Which of the following toxin is responsible for staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome?
    a) Haemolysin
    b) Leucocidin
    c) Exfoliative toxin
    d) Enterotoxin

14. Which of the following viruses can cause erythema infectiosum?
    a) BK Polyomavirus
    b) Parvovirus B19
    c) JC Polyomavirus
    d) Coronavirus

15. CRP is used as a biomarker for assessing which of the following conditions?
    a) Renal threshold
    b) Sepsis
    c) Liver failure
    d) Risk of cardiovascular disease

16. The coagulase test is used to differentiate:
    a) Staphylococcus epidermidis from Neisseria meningitidis
    b) Streptococcus pyogenes from Staphylococcus aureus
    c) Staphylococcus aureus from Staphylococcus epidermidis
    d) Staphylococcus epidermidis from Enterococcus faecalis

17. Which of the following is the most common central nervous system parasitic infection?
    a) Sparganosis
    b) Paragonimiasis
    c) Neurocysticercosis
    d) Echinococcosis

18. The causative agent of Favus is:
    a) Trichophyton mentagrophyte
    b) Microsporum canis
    c) Trichophyton schoenleinii
    d) Microsporum audouini

19. Latency for several years (especially in neural cells) is known to occur with which of the following viruses?
    a) Rhabdovirus
    b) Herpesviruses
    c) Flaviviruses
    d) Picornaviruses

20. In postoperative intensive care unit, five patients developed post-operative wound infection. Which of the following is the best method to prevent cross infection?
    a) Give antibiotics to the other patients in the ward
    b) Disinfect the ward
    c) Fumigate the ward
    d) Practice proper hand hygiene

ATAL BIHARI VAJPAYEE MEDICAL UNIVERSITY, LUCKNOW
MBBS DEGREE – IInd PROFESSIONAL – REGULAR EXAMINATION – MARCH 2024
MICROBIOLOGY – PAPER-II
TIME: 3 Hrs
Max. Marks: 100 Marks (80 Theory + 20 MCQs)

NOTE:

• Attempt all questions.

• This question paper consists of two sections: Section A – Multiple Choice Questions and Section B – Theory Questions.

• Both the sections have different paper codes. Write the correct paper code on the respective sheet.

• Write the correct MCQ paper set on the OMR sheet.

• Answer MCQs on the provided OMR sheet and theory questions on the provided answer booklet.

SECTION B – THEORY QUESTIONS
PAPER CODE: 2412230006

Q.1 Long Answer Question. ( 15 MARKS )

What is Healthcare Associated Infections? Discuss in detail about major healthcare-associated infection, its diagnosis, and prevention.

Q.2 Clinical Case Scenario based Structured Question (15 MARKS)

A 45-year-old female attended the Gynaecology OPD with complaints of mucopurulent vaginal discharge for the past one week. In Gram's staining of the cervical swab, kidney-shaped Gram-negative cocci are seen. Answer the following questions:
i) Which organism causes these symptoms? (2 Marks)
ii) List the other possible organisms that can cause Sexually Transmitted Infection. (3 Marks)
iii) Explain the clinical features of the organism. (3 Marks)
iv) What are its diagnostic methods and management? (7 Marks)

Q.3 Short Note Question (Approx 500 Words) 5 X 6 = 30 MARKS

i) Granulomatous Amoebic Encephalitis
ii) Dermatophytes
iii) Diagnosis of dengue fever
iv) Post-exposure prophylaxis of rabies
v) Anaerobic culture

Q.4 Short Answer Questions (Within 100 Words) 5 X 4 = 20 MARKS

i) Larva migrans
ii) What is prion disease? Name 3 prion diseases.
iii) Nagler reaction
iv) BCG vaccine
v) Dermatophytosis

VitalText Publication - All Rights Reserved