Microbiology Paper-1 (Supplementary), 2021 MBBS Batch ABVMU Lucknow

ATAL BIHARI VAJPAYEE MEDICAL UNIVERSITY, LUCKNOW
MBBS DEGREE - IInd PROFESSIONAL - SUPPLEMENTARY EXAMINATION - JUNE 2024
MICROBIOLOGY - PAPER - I
SECTION A - Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs)
SET: A

PAPER CODE: 2421130006
Note: Choose one correct answer in the OMR sheet provided. No overwriting should be done.
Time: 20 Minutes

(20 x 1 = 20 MARKS)

1. Which organism does not follow Koch's postulate?
   a) M. Leprae
   b) Atypical Mycobacteria
   c) M.TB
   d) B. anthracis

2. Mechanism of direct transfer of free DNA:
   a) Transformation
   b) Transduction
   c) Conjugation
   d) Transposition

3. Common name of Trichuris trichiura is:
   a) Whip worm
   b) Hook worm
   c) Pin worm
   d) Round worm

4. Bacterial capsule can be demonstrated by:
   a) Gram staining
   b) Acid-fast staining
   c) Negative staining
   d) Albert staining

5. Cells having F plasmid in the chromosomes are called:
   a) Hfr
   b) Hbs
   c) Hbf
   d) Hbr

6. The longest tape worm is:
   a) Taenia solium
   b) Taenia saginata
   c) Hymenolepis nana
   d) Diphyllobothrium latum

7. Which of the following is a non-suppurative sequelae of Streptococcus pyogenes infection?
   a) Acute rheumatic fever
   b) Pharyngitis
   c) Ludwig's angina
   d) Impetigo

8. Vaccine is available against which of the following viruses causing diarrhea?
   a) Rotavirus
   b) Calicivirus
   c) Adenovirus
   d) Astrovirus

9. Which of the following is the best specimen for isolating Salmonella in the first week of enteric fever?
   a) Urine
   b) Blood
   c) Exudate
   d) Bile

10. Which of the following vaccines is given at birth according to Universal Immunization Programme?
    a) DPT
    b) MMR
    c) BCG
    d) OPV

11. The stage of disease during which the patient begins to experience signs and symptoms of illness is known as:
    a) Convalescence
    b) Incubation
    c) Illness
    d) Prodromal

12. Which of the following tests is recommended for HIV diagnosis in a neonate born to HIV-positive mother?
    a) P-24 antigen test
    b) Antibody test by ELISA
    c) HIV culture
    d) Western Blot

13. Which one of the following is NOT a suitable specimen for microbial culture?
    a) Peritoneal fluid
    b) Throat swab
    c) Exudates from deep abscess
    d) Blood

14. The initial phase of bacterial growth curve during which accumulation of nutrients occurs is?
    a) Decline phase
    b) Log phase
    c) Lag phase
    d) Stationary phase

15. Which of the following parasites does not cause auto-infection?
    a) Strongyloides stercoralis
    b) Taenia solium
    c) Hymenolepis nana
    d) Trichuris trichiura

16. Which of the following statements is correct?
    a) Monomer with 2 antigen binding sites
    b) Dimer with 4 antigen binding sites
    c) Tetramer with 8 antigen binding sites
    d) Pentamer with 10 antigen binding sites

17. Which of the following is an enrichment medium for isolation of Vibrio cholerae from feces?
    a) Alkaline peptone water
    b) Selenite F broth
    c) Taurocholate tellurite peptone water
    d) Rappaport-Vassiliadis (RV) medium

18. All are true in reference to autoclaving EXCEPT:
    a) Sterilization is done by steam under pressure
    b) Method of choice for sterilizing antisera
    c) Bacillus stearothermophilus is used as biological control
    d) Both bacterial spores and vegetative forms are killed

19. Which of the following statement is FALSE regarding culture media?
    a) MacConkey agar is both selective and differential medium
    b) Wilson Blair is a differential medium
    c) Tetrathionate broth is an enriched medium
    d) Stuart’s medium is a transport medium

20. Definitive host for Echinococcus is:
    a) Man
    b) Dog
    c) Sheep
    d) Pig

MBBS DEGREE - IIIrd PROFESSIONAL SUPPLEMENTARY EXAMINATION - JUNE 2024

ATAL BIHARI VAJPAYEE MEDICAL UNIVERSITY, LUCKNOW

MICROBIOLOGY - PAPER - I

TIME: 3 Hrs

Max. Marks: 100 Marks (80 Theory + 20 MCQs)

NOTE:

Attempt all questions. This question paper consists of two sections: Section A - Multiple Choice Questions and Section B - Theory Questions. Both the sections have different paper codes. Write correct paper code on respective sheet. Write correct MCQ paper set on OMR sheet. Answer MCQs on the provided OMR sheet and theory questions on the provided answer booklet.

SECTION B - THEORY QUESTIONS

PAPER CODE: 2421230006

Q.1 Long Answer Question 15 MARKS

(i) Define Hypersensitivity reactions. 3 marks

(ii) Classify Hypersensitivity reactions. 4 marks

(iii) Write in details about type I and type IV Hypersensitivity. 8 marks

Q.2 Clinical Case Scenario based Structured Question 15 MARKS

A 25-year-old male presented with fever, chills and rigor for a duration of four days. The patient developed convulsions prior to admission. He was started with cephalosporin group of antibiotic by a private medical practitioner, but did not improve. On physical examination, anemia and splenomegaly were present. The blood sample was collected for peripheral blood smear examination which showed multiple ring forms inside Red blood cells.

(i) What is the most likely etiological agent? 1 mark

(ii) Write briefly about the life cycle of the etiological agent. 4 marks

(iii) Describe the pathogenesis and complications of the disease. 5 marks

(iv) Write Laboratory diagnosis of the disease. 5 marks

Q.3 Short Note Questions (Within 500 Words) 5 × 6 = 30 MARKS

(i) With the help of a diagram differentiate between cell walls of Gram positive and Gram-negative bacteria.

(ii) Amoebic liver abscess

(iii) Explain blood culture method for detection of Infective Endocarditis

(iv) Conjugation as a means of genetic transfer

(v) Real Time PCR

Q.4 Short Answer Questions (Within 100 Words) 5 × 4 = 20 MARKS

(i) Briefly describe Bacillus cereus food poisoning

(ii) Write down the principle of ELISA

(iii) Briefly discuss antimicrobial stewardship program

(iv) Briefly describe Spaulding's classification

(v) Post exposure prophylaxis of HIV

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