Atal Bihari Vajpayee Medical University Lucknow Previous Year Question Papers

Microbiology Paper-1 (Main), 2022 MBBS Batch ABVMU Lucknow

This is Microbiology Paper 1 of 2022 MBBS Batch. This paper was conducted by Atal Bihari Vajpayee Medical University, Lucknow in DECEMBER 2024

MICROBIOLOGY

VitalText Publication

1/22/20253 min read

ATAL BIHARI VAJPAYEE MEDICAL UNIVERSITY, LUCKNOW

MBBS DEGREE IInd PROFESSIONAL - REGULAR EXAMINATION - DEC 2024

MICROBIOLOGY - PAPER - I

SECTION A - Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs)

PAPER CODE: 2411130006

SET: B

Note: Choose one correct answer in the OMR sheet provided. No overwriting should be done.

(20 x 1 = 20 MARKS)

Time: 20 Minutes

  • 1. Which type of immunity is acquired after recovery from an infection or through vaccination?
  • a) Adoptive immunity

  • b) Innate immunity

  • c) Passive immunity

  • d) Active immunity

  • 2. Settle plate method and slit sampler are used to monitor the quality of which of the following?
  • a) Food

  • b) Air

  • c) Water

  • d) Milk

  • 3. A patient of Rheumatic heart disease, developed infective endocarditis after dental extraction. Most likely organism causing this is:
  • a) Staphylococcus aureus

  • b) Streptococcus viridians

  • c) Streptococcus pneumoniae

  • d) Streptococcus pyogenes

  • 4. HLA complex is located on the short arm of:
  • a) Chromosome 5

  • b) Chromosome 6

  • c) Chromosome 8

  • d) Chromosome 2

  • 5. In which organ does Salmonella Typhi exist in carriers?
  • a) Spleen

  • b) Blood

  • c) Kidney

  • d) Gallbladder

  • 6. The vector that transmits Kyasanur Forest disease is:
  • a) Rodent

  • b) Tick

  • c) Mosquito

  • d) Sandfly

  • 7. Organ of adhesion is:
  • a) Slime

  • b) Capsule

  • c) Fimbriae

  • d) Flagella

  • 8. Which of the following parasite enters through intact skin?
  • a) Giardia lamblia

  • b) Trichuris trichuria

  • c) Strongyloid stercoralis

  • d) Ascaris lumbricoides

  • 9. HIV in 4-month child is confirmed by:
  • a) p24 Antigen assay

  • b) HIV DNA PCR

  • c) Viral Culture

  • d) HIV ELISA

  • 10. Which one of the following complement factor acts as an anaphylotoxin?
  • a) C4b

  • b) C3a

  • c) C2a

  • d) C3b

  • 11. Which of the following diagnostic test is a slide flocculation test?
  • a) ASLO

  • b) VDRL

  • c) Kahn test

  • d) Weil-Felix

  • 12. Hydatid disease is caused by:
  • a) Echinococcus multiocularis

  • b) Echinococcus granulosus

  • c) Echinococcus oligarthus

  • d) Echinococcus vogeli

  • 13. Which of the following is a human oncogenic virus?
  • a) Variola virus

  • b) Parvovirus

  • c) Papilloma virus

  • d) Polyoma virus

  • 14. Following type of culture media containing inhibitory substance that inhibit normal flora present in the specimen and allows the pathogen to grow.
  • a) Differential Media

  • b) Enriched Media

  • c) Selective Media

  • d) Transport Media

  • 15. Which of the following is / are gram negative diplococci:
  • a) Streptococcus pneumoniae

  • b) Neisseria gonorrhoeae

  • c) Treponema pallidum

  • d) Mycoplasma genitalium

  • 16. Which of the following is a non-pathogenic Leptospira?
  • a) L. icterohaemorrhagiae

  • b) L. biflexa

  • c) L. copenhageni

  • d) L. interrogans

  • 17. All of the following are heterophile agglutination tests EXCEPT:
  • a) Cold agglutination test

  • b) Weil-Felix reaction

  • c) Paul-Bunnel test

  • d) Anti-Streptolysin O test

  • 18. Which of the following method of sterilization used for endoscope?
  • a) Autoclave

  • b) 2% Glutaryldehyde

  • c) Filtration

  • d) Hot Air Oven

  • 19. Post streptococcal glomerulo nephritis is an example of:
  • a) Type 4 hypersensitivity reaction

  • b) Type 1 hypersensitivity reaction

  • c) Type 2 hypersensitivity reaction

  • d) Type 3 hypersensitivity reaction

  • 20. Which of the following is the vector of Trypanosoma brucei:
  • a) Sand fly

  • b) Culex mosquito

  • c) Tse Tse fly

  • d) Rat flee

ATAL BIHARI VAJPAYEE MEDICAL UNIVERSITY, LUCKNOW MBBS DEGREE - IInd PROFESSIONAL - REGULAR EXAMINATION - DEC 2024
MICROBIOLOGY - PAPER - I
TIME: 3 Hrs Max. Marks: 100 Marks (80 Theory + 20MCQs)
NOTE:
  • Attempt all questions.

  • This question paper consists of two sections: Section A- Multiple Choice Questions and Section B- Theory Questions.

  • Both the section has different paper code. Write correct paper code on respective sheet

  • Write correct MCQ paper set on OMR sheet

  • Answer MCQs on the provided OMR sheet and theory questions on the provided answer booklet.

SECTION B-THEORY QUESTIONS
PAPER CODE: 2411230006
Q.1 Long Answer Question. ( 15 MARKS )
Define hypersensitivity. Classify hypersensitivity reaction, Differentiate immediate and delayed hypersensitivity. Write the principle of type I hypersensitivity.
Q.2 Clinical Case Scenario based Structured Question (15 MARKS)
A 25 year old man in the month of October, presented with fever, myalgia, headache since 7 days and developed petechiae, ecchymosis, pain abdomen and hematemesis since 2 days for which he was admitted in the hospital.

i) What is the provisional clinical diagnosis 1 marks

ii) Name the vector by which the disease is transmitted 1 marks

iii) Describe the pathogenesis 3 marks

iv) Describe the laboratory diagnosis 10 marks

Q.3 Short Note Question (Approx 500 Words) 5 X 6 = 30 MARKS

i) Diarrhoeagenic Escherichia coli

ii) Lab diagnosis of Kala-azar

iii) Serological marker of hepatitis B infection

iv) Amoebic liver abscess

v) Lab diagnosis of enteric fever

Q.4 Short Answer Questions (Within 100 Words) 5 X 4 = 20 MARKS

i) Mention the differences between Wuchereria bancrofti and Brugia malayi

ii) Describe the peripheral blood smear picture of Plasmodium vivax

iii) Viral inclusion body

iv) Viral diarrhoea

v) Dimorphic fungi

VitalText Publication - All Rights Reserved