Atal Bihari Vajpayee Medical University Lucknow Previous Year Question Papers

Community Medicine Paper-2( Main ) , 2020 MBBS Batch ABVMU Lucknow

This is Community Medicine Paper 2 of 2020 MBBS Batch . This Paper was conducted by Atal Bihari Vajpayee Medical University , Lucknow in November 2023.

COMMUNITY MEDICINE

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1/18/20253 min read

ATAL BIHARI VAJPAYEE MEDICAL UNIVERSITY , LUCKNOW

MBBS DEGREE EXAMINATION - IIIrd PROFESSIONAL - PART-1 NOV- 2023

PAPER-2 - COMMUNITY MEDICINE

SECTION A- Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs)

PAPER CODE: 2312130010 SET: D

Note: Choose one correct answer in the OMR sheet provided.

Time: 20 Minutes ( 20 × 1 = 20 MARKS )

  • 1. Maximum permissible level of whole body occupational exposure to ionizing radiation is:
  • a) 1 rem per year

  • b) 5 rem per year

  • c) 15 rem per year

  • d) 3 rem per year

  • 2. The best parameter for assessment of chronic malnutrition is:
  • a) Weight for age

  • b) Height for age

  • c) Weight for height

  • d) Height for weight

  • 3. To achieve Net Reproduction Rate (NRR) of 1, the Couple Protection Rate (CPR) should be:
  • a) >72%

  • b) >50%

  • c) >33%

  • d) >60%

  • 4. Under triage system colour coding, acute, life-threatening conditions are categorized as:
  • a) Red

  • b) Black

  • c) Yellow

  • d) Green

  • 5. Who is the chairman of the National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA) in India?
  • a) Home Minister of India

  • b) President of India

  • c) Prime Minister of India

  • d) Defence Minister of India

  • 6. In Network Analysis, the analysis of longest path of the network is known as:
  • a) SWOT Analysis

  • b) Waterfall Method (WM)

  • c) Critical Path Method (CPM)

  • d) Programme Evaluation and Review (PERT)

  • 7. eSanjeevani is:
  • a) National Telemedicine System (NTS) portal

  • b) Mother and Child Tracking System (MCTS)

  • c) Hospital Information System (HIS) portal

  • d) Management Information System (MIS) portal

  • 8. In calculating Dependency Ratio, the numerator is expressed as:
  • a) Population under 10 years and 60 and above

  • b) Population under 15 years 1 and 65 and above

  • c) Population under 10 years and 65 and above

  • d) Population under 15 years and 60 and above

  • 9. True about late expanding phase of demographic cycle:
  • a) Birth rate is lower than the death rate

  • b) High birth rate and high death rate

  • c) Death rate declines still further, and the birth rate tends to fall

  • d) Death rate begins to decline, while the birth rate remains high

  • 10. As per Indian Public Health Standards (IPHS), Health and Wellness Centres (HWC) in plain areas are established at a population of:
  • a) 30000

  • b) 5,000

  • c) 80,000-1,20,000

  • d) 1000

  • 11. The number of live birth per 1000 women in the reproductive age group in a year refers to:
  • a) Total fertility rate

  • b) Net Reproduction Rate

  • c) General Fertility Rate

  • d) Gross Reproduction Rate

  • 12. Set of statement for monitoring Progress towards goal is referred as:
  • a) Target

  • b) Programme

  • c) Procedure

  • d) Objective

  • 13. Disposal of placenta at PHC is:
  • a) Treat with bleaching powder and burial

  • b) Deep burning

  • c) Boiling

  • d) Deep burial

  • 14. Hardy Weinberg law is related to:
  • a) Gene therapy

  • b) Population genetics

  • c) Eugenics

  • d) Human genome project

  • 15. Integration of preventive and curative health services at all administrative levels was a recommendation of:
  • a) Bhore committee

  • b) Mudaliar committee

  • c) Srivastava committee

  • d) Jungalwalla committee

  • 16. The management technique which is more promising tool for application in health field is:
  • a) Cost accounting

  • b) Cost effective analysis

  • c) Input output analysis

  • d) Cost benefit analysis

  • 17. The extended sickness benefit is given for:
  • a) 309 days

  • b) 409 days

  • c) 730 days

  • d) 490 days

  • 18. Which of the following is at sub-centre level:
  • a) Zila parishad

  • b) Gram panchayat

  • c) Gram sabha

  • d) Panchayat samiti

  • 19. Which of the following is NOT a step in Health Planning?
  • a) Evaluation

  • b) Monitoring

  • c) Programming

  • d) Procrastination

  • 20. World anti-tobacco day is celebrated on:
  • a) 24th November

  • b) 31st May

  • c) 12th July

  • d) 5th June

ATAL BIHARI VAJPAYEE MEDICAL UNIVERSITY, LUCKNOW
MBBS DEGREE EXAMINATION - IIIrd PROFESSIONAL - PART-II NOV-2023

PAPER-2-COMMUNITY MEDICINE

TIME: 3 Hrs Max. Marks: 100 Marks (80 Theory + 20MCQs)

NOTE:

  • Attempt all questions.

  • This question paper consists of two sections: Section A- Multiple Choice Questions and Section B- Theory Questions.

  • Both the section has different paper code. Write correct paper code on respective sheet

  • Write correct MCQ paper set on OMR sheet

  • Answer MCQs on the provided OMR sheet and theory questions on the provided answer booklet.

SECTION B - THEORY QUESTIONS
PAPER CODE: 2311230010
Q.1 Long Answer Question 15 MARKS

i) Classify family planning methods. 5 marks

ii) How is failure rate of contraceptives measured? 3 marks

iii) Discuss the contraceptive choices available with their possible adverse effects for a female of 30 years who has recently delivered and is breastfeeding 7 marks

Q.2 i) What are different tiers in health services delivery in India? 4 marks

ii) What is the difference between a health centre and hospital? 3 marks

iii) Describe the population covered and staffing pattern of health care delivery system at village level to community health centre level. 8 marks

Q.3 Short Note Question (Approx 500 Words) 5 X 6 = 30 MARKS

i) Newborn care in RMNCH+A

ii) Steps in disaster management

iii) Functions of Primary Health Centre

iv) Benefits to workers under Employee's State Insurance (ESI) scheme

v) Ethics in patient autonomy and decision making

Q.4 Short Answer Questions (Within 100 Words) 5 X 4 = 20 MARKS

i) Niti Ayog

ii) Gantt Chart

iii) Ergonomics

iv) Bioterrorism

v) Social autopsy

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